SCOTUS has decided that it's not corruption unless there is quid pro quo. In this case, the pro part is missing, because Intuit gave them money, and the politicians did something to benefit Intuit, but it can't be proven that Intuit gave them the money for doing it.
> “People in other states who had been interested in it started saying, ‘We just don’t want to pick a fight with Intuit.’ ”
Excuse me for not understanding US politics, but.. How is this not considered blatant corruption?