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> One could argue this judge has pushed the limits of the law (...)

Who would argue that? And what does that actually mean? Do you have any concrete example that helps explain what you have in mind?



They definitely are "ruling that even the mega-rich should still have to follow the law", which to some might be interpreted as being controversial and "pushing the limits".


Also never forget that both sides in these courts are often the rich. And other side might have more political connections.


> They definitely are "ruling that even the mega-rich should still have to follow the law" (...)

What are you talking about? That's the foundation of a legal system in a free and open society: equality before the law.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equality_before_the_law

> (...) which to some might be interpreted as being controversial and "pushing the limits".

Who are these "some"? And what basis is there to even suggest any sort of discrimination?

This line of insinuation is absurd, and suggests some despair in finding anything to grab onto.




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